When Patek Philippe sets their prices, should we sometimes have to assume that :
whatever the price maybe must be justified by the complexity of its movement & workmanship ??
since there is already discussions about how 5959=5950 regardless of its metal, say it be platinum or steel, as long as the movement is highly regarded by its complexity, its metal should be set aside.
so, in the case of 5951/ PT, are we to assume, when patek sets this figure, that the movement itself is equal to a patek 3939/ PT ??
Does Patek regard 3939 minute repeater + tourbillon EQUALS to 5951 split seconds chrono + perpetual calendar ?? As i am writing this, i must state that, i dont and would not compare the two models, it is not my consideration as to which is a better watch, simply, the figures puzzles me.
When patek's team were deciding on each pieces price range, this number CHF 500,000 surely wasnt a number that they pulled out of a hat , at least that is what i hope didnt take place. Then how do we compare or NOT compare each piece ??
If we were to break down some of the current prices of say :
5013P - CHF 625,000
5016P - CHF 690,000
5078P -CHF 360,000
they are all inhouse movements, highly complicated. If we look at each piece by its movement, does Patek regard split chrono 27-525 to be LESS ( ? ) than R 27 PS .....??
your views ....
thank you